Dearest hijas and hijo,
It is common to hear in Christian circles, among those who even talk about it; from the pulpit by preachers and in Bible Study classes from elders, that the Flood of Noah described in Genesis 6-9 was a local flood event perhaps contained to the Mesopotamian Valley. This Flood wasn’t global and universal at all, they will say, but only local over the whole of mankind alive in the time of Noah, and specific to that region of Noah’s habitation (the Mesopotamian valley).
This raises a series of questions, however, when one studies the actual account given in Genesis 6-9:
Why did God command Noah to take two of every kind of living thing of all flesh aboard the ark (Gen. 6:19)? Couldn’t God have sent some of these animals out of the local area? Chased them away perhaps on mass migrations?
Why did God command Noah to especially take two of every bird kind (Gen. 6:20)? Couldn’t the birds have flown away, out of the local area and to new areas a local flood event wouldn’t affect?
How was it that a local flood event lasted for more than a year (Gen. 7:11, 7:12, 7:24, 8:4, 8:8, 8:10, 8:12, 8:13-16); Noah’s 600th year, 2nd month, 17th day (7:11), to Noah’s 601st year, 2nd month, 27th day (8:13-14)?. We have local flood events in different parts of the globe all the time, but none that last more than a few days, or weeks perhaps.
Why does the account say that the waters prevailed more and more upon the earth so that all the high mountains everywhere under the heavens were covered to a depth of fifteen cubits (Gen. 7:19-20)? ‘All’, ‘High’, ‘Everywhere’, ‘Under the Heavens’, doesn’t sound local to me, but more universal, wouldn’t you agree? The Hebrew is pretty strong here with a double use of the Hebrew word kol (all), indicating universality.
Why did the Church believe this Flood was global and universal for 1800 years since its inception in the First Century A.D.? Why did the Jews in their ancient writings believe the same before the Advent of Christ? What changed and when did it change?
There are other questions as well:
Why does Christ compare His Second Coming in Matthew 24: 37-39 with the Flood in the days of Noah? Will Christ’s Second Coming be only a local event and not universal? He’s only coming to judge a local people and a local area and not the entire Earth?
Why does Peter make two references to Noah’s Flood (1 Peter 3:20 & 2 Peter 3: 3-7)? He seems to link the judgment of water in the time of Noah with the judgment of fire at Christ’s Second Coming. How do these parallels make sense if the Flood was only a local event?
Could it be then, that our Christian friends, preachers, elders, co-attendees at church, are buying into the uniformitarian thinking of current scientific consensus; taking man’s word for God’s word?
As you know from my other posts, it was a denial of the worldwide Flood of Noah in the 17th and 18th centuries at the beginning of modern secular geology, that led to the millions and billions of years of secular geohistory (the geologic column), and evolution as its biological counterpart.
So don’t take your pastor’s word that it was a local event, challenge it, do the study. Do the hard work to find out for yourself. There are plenty of scientific evidences in the rocks and in the earth’s geomorphology to disprove a local event. The fossils in the rocks themselves speak to a worldwide event as well. Read and understand the full account in Genesis 6-9, check the math, delve into the words used to describe it. Make yourself a student of God’s Word here, and you’ll be able to challenge others who tell you otherwise.
Vaya con Dios mis ninos!